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A. Togay Koralturk
Last updated on July 28, 2026
18 min read

In this blog post, we have created a free LEED AP BD+C exam for you. If you would like to get full-length online LEED AP BD+C practice exams, click here to check out our practice exams that are designed to provide the candidate with a real exam simulation and will enable the test-taker to assess and reinforce knowledge while simultaneously identifying weak spots.
If you'd like to take the practice exam, without the exam simulator, here are the free practice questions.
A project team is documenting the cradle-to-gate embodied carbon emissions for a concrete mix under the Quantify and Assess Embodied Carbon prerequisite. The team has the truck-haul distance from the batch plant to the jobsite and the energy used to place and cure the concrete on-site. Which of these life-cycle activities falls within the cradle-to-gate scope that the Quantify and Assess Embodied Carbon prerequisite requires the project team to quantify?
a) Transport of the finished concrete from the batch plant to the jobsite, because delivery precedes installation
b) On-site placement and curing energy, because those emissions occur before the building is occupied
c) Transportation of raw materials to the manufacturing site, but not transport of the finished concrete to the jobsite
d) Both the delivery of finished concrete to the jobsite and the on-site placement energy
Correct Answer: C. Transportation of raw materials to the manufacturing site, but not transport of the finished concrete to the jobsite.
The cradle-to-gate scope the prerequisite requires is limited to stages A1 through A3: raw material extraction (A1), transportation to the manufacturing site (A2), and the manufacturing processes (A3). Transport of the finished product from the manufacturer to the construction site is the next stage and is excluded from a cradle-to-gate quantification, so the delivery haul and the on-site placement and curing energy both fall outside the required boundary. Only the inbound movement of raw materials to the plant counts.
A project pursuing the Light Pollution Reduction credit has a property line that abuts a public street. How may the team treat the lighting boundary along that edge?
a) The lighting boundary must remain on the property line in all cases
b) The lighting boundary may move to the far curb of the street
c) The lighting boundary may move to the center line of that street
d) The lighting boundary may move 5 feet (1.5 meters) beyond the property line
Correct Answer: C. The lighting boundary may move to the center line of that street.
When a property line abuts a public street, alley, or transit corridor, the lighting boundary may move to the center line of that street, alley, or corridor — recognizing that the project is responsible for only its half of the public way. The 5-foot (1.5-meter) offset is the neighboring rule for public areas such as a walkway, bikeway, plaza, or parking lot that abuts the property line, and confusing the two is the most common error. The lighting boundary is typically based on property lines but expressly may extend beyond them under these defined conditions, so it does not always coincide with the LEED project boundary.
A New Construction project pursues the limit cooling tower cycles path of the optimize process water use option of the Enhanced Water Efficiency credit. The team meets the maximum calculated number of cooling tower cycles. To earn the second point under this path, which additional measure is acceptable?
a) Increase the number of cycles by a minimum of 25% by increasing treatment, or use a minimum 20% alternative water
b) Increase the number of cycles by a minimum of 30% by increasing treatment in the condenser or makeup water systems
c) Use a minimum 20% alternative water only; increasing cycles further does not earn the second point
d) Increase the number of cycles by a minimum of 25% by increasing treatment, or use a minimum 30% alternative water
Correct Answer: A. Increase the number of cycles by a minimum of 25% by increasing treatment, or use a minimum 20% alternative water.
For New Construction, the second point under the limit cooling tower cycles path requires the team to meet the maximum calculated cycles and then either increase the number of cycles by a minimum of 25% through additional treatment or maintenance, or use a minimum 20% alternative water. The 30% cycle increase and the 30% alternative water figures belong to the Core and Shell table, which adds a third point tier.
A team mapping acoustic expectations under the sound environment option of Occupant Experience is classifying each space's acoustic privacy. Which classification set belongs to acoustic privacy?
a) Loud zone, quiet zone, mixed zone, circulation, and sensitive
b) High speech security, confidential speech privacy, normal speech privacy, marginal speech privacy, or no privacy
c) High risk, medium risk, low risk, or no risk
d) Preserve, improve, restore, mitigate, or specialize
Correct Answer: B. High speech security, confidential speech privacy, normal speech privacy, marginal speech privacy, or no privacy.
Under Occupant Experience, the mapping path classifies each primary indoor and outdoor space across several categories. Acoustic privacy uses high speech security, confidential speech privacy, normal speech privacy, marginal speech privacy, or no privacy. The other sets are real classifications for the neighboring categories. Loud, quiet, mixed, circulation, and sensitive zones classify acoustic comfort. High through no risk classifies noise exposure zones. Preserve, improve, restore, mitigate, and specialize classify soundscape management.
Planning for Zero Waste Operations directs project teams to follow the true waste hierarchy framework, which ranks waste management strategies from most to least preferred. Which sequence correctly reflects that order?
a) Recycle, Reduce, Reuse, Compost, Anaerobic Digestion
b) Reuse, Reduce, Compost, Recycle, Anaerobic Digestion
c) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse, Anaerobic Digestion, Compost
d) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Compost, Anaerobic Digestion
Correct Answer: D. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Compost, Anaerobic Digestion.
Planning for Zero Waste Operations instructs teams to follow the true waste hierarchy, which ranks strategies from most to least preferred in this order: Reduce (minimize waste at the source), Reuse (extend product life), Recycle (transform waste into new products), Compost (decompose organics into nutrient-rich soil), and Anaerobic Digestion (break down organic material into a nutrient-rich liquid). The framework prioritizes reducing generation and maximizing resource recovery before disposal.
A product manager wants to document Level 1 achievement in the circular economy criteria area under the Building Product Selection and Procurement credit. Which product characteristic qualifies a product for Level 1 in the circular economy criteria area?
a) Disclosure of raw material sources during manufacturing
b) Incorporation of recycled or qualified bio-based content
c) Screening to avoid a wide range of harmful substances
d) Closed-loop circular systems that maximize value through reuse
Correct Answer: B. Incorporation of recycled or qualified bio-based content.
Products rewarded under Level 1 of circular economy include those that have incorporated recycled or qualified bio-based content. Preserving materials through reuse and maximizing value through closed-loop circular systems is reserved for Levels 2 and 3 of this same criteria area. Disclosing raw material sources is a Level 1 ecosystem health behavior, and screening to avoid harmful substances belongs to Levels 2 or 3 of human health, so both are near-miss distractors from sibling criteria areas.
A mechanical engineer employed by the same firm that designed the building's HVAC systems is proposed as the commissioning provider (CxP) under Fundamental Commissioning. Under what condition is this arrangement acceptable?
a) Never; the CxP must always be a third-party entity holding no other contract on the project
b) If the engineer is a completely independent member of the design team, not directly associated with any aspect of the design or installation of the building systems
c) If the owner co-signs each commissioning report prepared by the engineer
d) If the engineer's commissioning scope is limited to the building envelope
Correct Answer: B. If the engineer is a completely independent member of the design team, not directly associated with any aspect of the design or installation of the building systems.
Under Fundamental Commissioning, the CxP must be completely independent of the design and construction work, per the referenced ASHRAE 90.1 provisions. Independence does not require a separate firm. The CxP can be employed by the company performing the design or construction of the building. The condition is that the person acts as a completely independent member of the design team, not directly associated with any aspect of the design or installation of the building systems. The owner may also employ the CxP directly. A third-party entity is one acceptable route, not the only one. If the CxP's company has direct influence on the design and construction, the commissioning plan must address potential conflicts of interest.
When a product is tested with a qualifying independent laboratory report rather than a third-party certification under the low-emitting materials credit, the VOC emissions evaluation references a specific test method and modeling scenario. Which combination is required?
a) ANSI/BIFMA M7.1-2011 (R2021), using the open plan scenario
b) CDPH Standard Method v1.1-2010, using the private office scenario
c) CDPH Standard Method v1.2-2017, using the private office scenario
d) SCAQMD Rule 1168, using the schools scenario
Correct Answer: C. CDPH Standard Method v1.2-2017, using the private office scenario.
The VOC emissions evaluation criteria require testing according to the California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.2-2017, meeting the VOC limits in Table 4-1 of the private office scenario (products used in classrooms may instead be modeled using the schools or private office scenario). ANSI/BIFMA M7.1 is the test method for the separate furniture emissions evaluation, not the general VOC criteria. SCAQMD Rule 1168 defines adhesives and sealants but is not the VOC emissions test method here. For independent lab reports, the test must also have been performed no more than three years prior to purchase.
Under the Reduce Embodied Carbon credit, a New Construction team pursuing the option that compares a proposed building to a baseline must establish the assessment scope. Which scope of life-cycle modules does this whole-building life-cycle assessment option require?
a) Cradle-to-gate (modules A1 through A3) only
b) Cradle-to-grave (modules A through C), excluding operating energy and operating water-related energy
c) Cradle-to-grave (modules A through D), including benefits beyond the system boundary
d) Product and construction stages (modules A1 through A5) only
Correct Answer: B. Cradle-to-grave (modules A through C), excluding operating energy and operating water-related energy.
This option requires a cradle-to-grave whole-building life-cycle assessment of modules A through C, excluding operating energy and operating water-related energy, for the project's structure, enclosure, and hardscape. A cradle-to-gate A1–A3 boundary is the prerequisite's scope, not this credit option's.
Under the Enhanced Commissioning credit, how are the options structured for Core and Shell projects?
a) Under Option 1, Path 1 covers the building enclosure only, and Path 2 adds the MEP systems together with commissioning templates for future tenant interconnections; under Option 2, the New Construction monitoring-based commissioning requirements apply
b) Under Option 1, Path 1 covers MEP systems and Path 2 covers the enclosure, identical to New Construction
c) Core and Shell projects may pursue only monitoring-based commissioning
d) Under Option 1, both paths cover the enclosure, and Option 2 is unavailable to Core and Shell
Correct Answer: A. Under Option 1, Path 1 covers the building enclosure only, and Path 2 adds the MEP systems together with commissioning templates for future tenant interconnections; under Option 2, the New Construction monitoring-based commissioning requirements apply.
For Core and Shell, Option 1 is arranged around what the developer delivers: Path 1 covers the building enclosure only, and Path 2 adds the MEP systems along with commissioning templates for future tenant interconnections — templates addressing likely tenant scenarios for design review checks, functional tests, and the systems manual. Under Option 2, Monitoring-Based Commissioning, the New Construction requirements apply.
In Building Product Selection and Procurement, a single product earns a Level 3 achievement in one criteria area and a Level 2 achievement in a second criteria area, with no other qualifying documentation. What is this product's multi-attribute score (MAS)?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Correct Answer: A. 5.
In Building Product Selection and Procurement, achievement levels carry multipliers—Level 1 = 1×, Level 2 = 2×, Level 3 = 3×—and a product's scores are added across criteria areas to form the multi-attribute score (MAS). A Level 3 (3) plus a Level 2 (2) equals 5, which is also the maximum MAS allowed per product. Only the highest value in each criteria area counts (no double counting within an area). A product's value is multiplied by its MAS, and any product category adjusted value exceeding 100% earns 1 point, up to 5 points total. The MAS caps at 5 per product, so a 3 + 2 combination already maxes out the score.
A nonstructural specialty product does not clearly align with any of the nine product categories of Building Product Selection and Procurement. How does the credit treat it?
a) It may still be eligible for assessment; the credit offers flexibility to evaluate product types outside the nine listed categories
b) It requires a formal LEED interpretation before inclusion
c) It is automatically excluded from the credit
d) It must be counted in the furniture category by default
Correct Answer: A. It may still be eligible for assessment; the credit offers flexibility to evaluate product types outside the nine listed categories.
Under Building Product Selection and Procurement, nonstructural products that do not clearly align with one of the listed product categories may still be eligible to be included for assessment. The credit is designed to offer flexibility in evaluating product types that fall outside the nine categories, encouraging broader integration of sustainable materials. Structure, enclosure, and hardscape materials remain outside the credit — their impacts are handled by the embodied carbon prerequisites and credits.
A New Construction team pursuing Enhanced Commissioning for the building enclosure is selecting field-testing methods. Which pairing of test and an acceptable referenced standard is correct?
a) Air leakage testing per ASTM E1105.
b) Infrared imaging per ASTM E779.
c) Water penetration testing per ASTM C1153.
d) Water penetration testing per ASTM E1105 or AAMA 501.2.
Correct Answer: D. Water penetration testing per ASTM E1105 or AAMA 501.2.
Enhanced commissioning for the building enclosure requires water penetration testing per ASTM E1105 or AAMA 501.2. Air leakage testing uses ASTM E783, E779, E1186, or E3158, and infrared imaging uses ASTM C1153 or ASTM C1060, so the other pairings assign standards to the wrong test.
A New Construction laboratory near a region prone to wildfires wants its HVAC systems to switch into a smoke-ready operating mode during periods of heightened outdoor air pollution. Which option of the Resilient Spaces credit corresponds to this strategy, and what standard governs it?
a) Management Mode for Episodic Outdoor Ambient Conditions, governed by ASHRAE Guideline 44
b) Management Mode for Respiratory Diseases, governed by ASHRAE Standard 241-2023
c) Design for Occupant Thermal Safety During Power Outages, governed by ASHRAE Guideline 44
d) Management Mode for Episodic Outdoor Ambient Conditions, governed by ASHRAE Standard 241-2023
Correct Answer: A. Management Mode for Episodic Outdoor Ambient Conditions, governed by ASHRAE Guideline 44.
Designing systems to operate a smoke-ready or episodic outdoor event management mode for events such as wildfire smoke is the Management Mode for Episodic Outdoor Ambient Conditions option, which is described by and governed by ASHRAE Guideline 44 on protecting building occupants from smoke during wildfire and prescribed burn events. ASHRAE Standard 241-2023 governs infectious aerosols under the separate Management Mode for Respiratory Diseases option, not smoke events.
A team is preparing the performance path fixture calculations for the Minimum Water Efficiency prerequisite and wants to modify the default gender assumption used for occupancy. Under what condition may the default ratio be changed?
a) The default gender mix is two-thirds female, and any change must be approved by the local water utility
b) The default gender mix is half male and half female, and modifications must be shown to apply for the life of the building
c) The default gender mix is set by the manufacturer of the installed fixtures and cannot be altered
d) The default gender mix is half male and half female, but modifications are prohibited under any circumstances
Correct Answer: B. The default gender mix is half male and half female, and modifications must be shown to apply for the life of the building.
The default gender mix is half male and half female. Modifications to the 50:50 ratio must be shown to apply for the life of the building, such as a single-gender educational facility, and must be supported by a narrative and data.
A general contractor is drafting the extreme heat protection portion of its construction management plan. The prerequisite's extreme heat requirement is adapted from guidance issued by which organization, and which of the following is an example of a preventive measure the plan should address?
a) Adapted from OSHA heat-prevention guidance; measures include providing cool, shaded, or air-conditioned rest areas, required rest breaks, and scheduling labor-intensive work for cooler parts of the day
b) Adapted from the SMACNA IAQ guidelines; measures include sealing doorways and tenting high-activity areas to isolate emissions
c) Adapted from ASHRAE Standard 55; measures are limited to maintaining the indoor comfort zone within the mechanically conditioned space
d) Adapted from the WHO global air quality guidelines; measures include lowering the interior particulate design limit during hot months
Correct Answer: A. Adapted from OSHA heat-prevention guidance; measures include providing cool, shaded, or air-conditioned rest areas, required rest breaks, and scheduling labor-intensive work for cooler parts of the day.
Under Construction Management, the extreme heat requirement is adapted from OSHA prevention guidance for preventing heat-related illness, not from SMACNA (which is the basis for the air quality practices), ASHRAE 55, or the WHO guidelines. Preventive measures include providing cool, shaded, or air-conditioned areas for rest, implementing required rest breaks, and scheduling labor-intensive activities in cooler parts of the day.
Under the erosion and sedimentation control plan required by Minimized Site Disturbance, a project team elects to inspect controls every 14 calendar days rather than every seven. Which additional inspection trigger must the plan also satisfy to remain compliant?
a) An inspection within 48 hours of any storm event producing 0.5 inches (13 millimeters) or more of rain in a 24-hour period.
b) A weekly inspection of dewatering discharges only, with no storm-triggered requirement.
c) An inspection within 24 hours of the occurrence of a storm event that produces 0.25 inches (6 millimeters) or more of rain within a 24-hour period.
d) An inspection within 72 hours of any storm event, plus monthly inspections of construction-exclusion zones.
Correct Answer: C. An inspection within 24 hours of the occurrence of a storm event that produces 0.25 inches (6 millimeters) or more of rain within a 24-hour period.
Minimized Site Disturbance requires site inspections of all controls and management practices at least once every seven calendar days, or once every 14 calendar days and within 24 hours of the occurrence of a storm event that produces 0.25 inches (6 millimeters) or more of rain within a 24-hour period. A team choosing the 14-day interval is therefore obligated to also inspect within 24 hours after a qualifying storm. Separately, dewatering inspections must occur once per day on which the discharge of dewatering occurs.
A LEED BD+C: Core and Shell project addresses drought as one of its two highest-priority hazards under Enhanced Resilient Site Design and includes a created water feature. Which requirement applies specifically to makeup water for that water feature?
a) Makeup water must not exceed 10,000 gallons (37,854 liters) of potable water per year.
b) Makeup water must come 100% from harvested rainwater with no potable water permitted.
c) Makeup water must not exceed 5,000 gallons (18,927 liters) of potable water per year, or at least 75% of annual makeup water must come from alternative water sources.
d) Makeup water must not exceed 5,000 gallons (18,927 liters) of potable water per year, with no alternative-source option allowed.
Correct Answer: C. Makeup water must not exceed 5,000 gallons (18,927 liters) of potable water per year, or at least 75% of annual makeup water must come from alternative water sources.
Under Enhanced Resilient Site Design, the drought hazard requires compliance with Enhanced Water Efficiency, native and/or drought-tolerant plantings, and makeup water for created water features that complies with SITES C3.4 or local equivalent. For Core and Shell projects only, makeup water for any created water features must not exceed 5,000 gallons (18,927 liters) of potable water per year, or at least 75% of annual water makeup must come from alternative water sources.
Under Building and Materials Reuse, Option 2: Materials Reuse, which of the following is one of the listed targeted materials that receives a 2x multiplier rather than being categorized as an "other" material?
a) Dimensional lumber
b) Ceilings
c) Doors
d) Plumbing fixtures
Correct Answer: B. Ceilings.
In Building and Materials Reuse, Option 2, the targeted materials are carpeting, ceilings, furniture (ancillary and systems), and interior walls; these are prioritized for high embodied carbon, toxic landfill impacts, and recovery potential, and they receive a 2× multiplier compared to other reused materials. Dimensional lumber, doors, and plumbing fixtures are listed under “other materials,” which do not receive the multiplier. The thresholds are: reuse at least 30% of 1 targeted type, or 15% of 2 targeted types, or 15% of 4 other types, for 2 points.
A team pursuing the Heat Island Reduction credit intends to claim shade from newly planted trees over its parking lot. Which statement correctly describes how that shade is credited?
a) Shade is measured at the canopy's size at installation, and planting may be completed within one year of occupancy
b) Shade is measured in plain view at noon assuming 10-year canopy width, and the planting must be in place at the time of the occupancy permit
c) Shade is measured as the average across daylight hours assuming mature canopy width at 20 years
d) Shade may be claimed only from existing mature trees, since new plantings provide no measurable benefit at occupancy
Correct Answer: B. Shade is measured in plain view at noon assuming 10-year canopy width, and the planting must be in place at the time of the occupancy permit.
The credit allows shade over pavement areas from existing or new plants, or vegetated structures, measured in plain view at noon and assuming 10-year canopy width — a convention that credits the tree's reasonably mature spread rather than its size on planting day. Critically, the planting or vegetated structures must be in place at the time of the occupancy permit, so a commitment to plant later does not qualify.
A team is applying the Minimum Water Efficiency prerequisite and must sort its products into the correct labeling program. Which pairing is correct?
a) Showerheads — ENERGY STAR
b) Commercial clothes washers — WaterSense
c) Private lavatory faucets — WaterSense
d) Ice machines — WaterSense
Correct Answer: C. Private lavatory faucets — WaterSense.
WaterSense covers the fixture and fitting group: toilets (water closets), urinals, private lavatory faucets, and showerheads. ENERGY STAR covers the appliance and equipment group: residential and commercial clothes washers, residential dishwashers, and ice machines.
A team pursuing Thermal Bridging is designing a continuous thermal barrier to comply with ASHRAE 90.1-2022, Section 5.5.5. How does the Reduce Peak Thermal Loads credit treat the availability of exceptions for projects located in the warmer climate zones 0 through 3?
a) Projects in climate zones 0 through 3 cannot apply any exceptions and must comply entirely with Section 5.5.5
b) Projects in climate zones 0 through 3 may apply all listed exceptions without penalty
c) Projects in climate zones 0 through 3 are exempt from the thermal bridging option altogether
d) Projects in climate zones 0 through 3 may substitute the envelope trade-off method for compliance
Correct Answer: A. Projects in climate zones 0 through 3 cannot apply any exceptions and must comply entirely with Section 5.5.5.
To earn this option, projects must comply with the prescriptive thermal bridging requirements of ASHRAE 90.1-2022, Section 5.5.5(a), including Sections 5.5.5.1 through 5.5.5.5, without applying exceptions for projects in climate zones 0 through 3. Warmer-climate projects therefore cannot apply any exceptions and must comply entirely with Section 5.5.5, providing thermal breaks, continuous insulation, and reflective coatings to limit solar heat gain.
A project pursuing the limit-refrigerant-leakage option of Enhanced Refrigerant Management is finalizing its design and installation requirements. Which requirement is stated by this option?
a) Specify an automatic leak detection system in any fully enclosed space housing equipment with an overall refrigerant charge exceeding 100 tCO2e.
b) Specify an automatic leak detection system for every refrigerant-containing unit regardless of charge.
c) Limit all field-installed refrigerant piping to soldered fittings using lead-free solder.
d) Require self-contained equipment only for the units representing at least 50% of the total refrigerant global warming potential.
Correct Answer: A. Specify an automatic leak detection system in any fully enclosed space housing equipment with an overall refrigerant charge exceeding 100 tCO2e.
The limit-refrigerant-leakage option requires an automatic leak detection system in fully enclosed spaces housing equipment with an overall refrigerant charge exceeding 100 tCO2e. Detection is not mandated for every unit regardless of charge; field-installed piping must use brazed or press-type fittings (not lead-free solder); and self-contained equipment is required for at least 80% (not 50%) of the total refrigerant global warming potential.
A commercial building rejects heat from several appliances and is documenting the process standards of the Minimum Water Efficiency prerequisite. Which requirement applies to heat rejection and cooling for that equipment?
a) Once-through cooling with potable water is permitted if the discharge is captured for irrigation
b) No once-through cooling with potable water is allowed for any equipment or appliances that reject heat
c) Once-through cooling with potable water is allowed provided a makeup water meter is installed
d) Once-through cooling with potable water is allowed only for medical equipment under emergency backup
Correct Answer: B. No once-through cooling with potable water is allowed for any equipment or appliances that reject heat.
The processes standard requires no once-through cooling with potable water for any equipment or appliances that reject heat. Capturing discharge, adding a meter, or invoking emergency backup does not create an exception to that prohibition.
A renovation project pursuing the Minimum Water Efficiency prerequisite will retain several existing appliances and pieces of equipment already in the building. How are those items treated?
a) They must be replaced, because the prerequisite applies to all appliances in the project
b) They must meet the requirements, but the team may average their performance with new equipment
c) Existing appliances and equipment intended for reuse are not required to meet the equipment water efficiency requirement
d) They are exempt only if they carry a current ENERGY STAR label
Correct Answer: C. Existing appliances and equipment intended for reuse are not required to meet the equipment water efficiency requirement.
The prerequisite states that existing appliances and equipment intended for reuse in the project are not required to meet the equipment water efficiency requirements — they can be excluded from that evaluation. This exemption deliberately avoids penalizing reuse, which would otherwise push teams to discard functioning equipment and incur unnecessary embodied carbon and waste, working against the rating system's materials goals. Note the exemption is scoped to appliances and equipment, not to fixtures and fittings.

A. Togay Koralturk May 14, 2026 3 min read
As building professionals prepare for this significant update, two critical questions arise: what are the major changes in LEED v5, and when will the LEED credential exams transition to the new version?

A. Togay Koralturk May 14, 2026 2 min read

A. Togay Koralturk May 14, 2026 2 min read
A. Togay Koralturk is a globally recognized pioneer and educator in sustainable design and construction, as well as an international best-selling author of LEED study guides. His LEED publications have reached tens of thousands of professionals worldwide and have been widely adopted as primary course materials at leading universities across the United States. Holding a bachelor’s degree in civil engineering and a master’s degree in construction management from the University of Southern California, he began his career in Los Angeles, CA, earning his LEED AP® credential along the way in 2008. He has helped numerous projects pursue LEED certification worldwide and has educated thousands of professionals.